I'm getting conflicting answers to this one. Lets say you own 20 acres of property, zoned for one house per 10 acres. It is recorded as one lot of 20 acres, not two 10 acres plots. You have a mortgage on it. You wish to build on the other 10, so you have to partition the other 10 off, sell the house and 10 to finance it. The house and 10 acres would easily bring enough to pay off the mortgage.
Just how does this work with the mortgage company? Do they do this or do you have to own all of it outright? Anyone been through this????
Thanks in advance,
RR
Just how does this work with the mortgage company? Do they do this or do you have to own all of it outright? Anyone been through this????
Thanks in advance,
RR