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In a past issue of the TDR was an article mentioning that manufactures had to provide the product free of charge that they would require a consumer to use exclusively. If they said you had to use only their oil for your engine and no substitutes they were required to provide it free of charge.



Is this correct? If so what is the law for this? The Clayton Act? Or the Sherman Act? Or???



Let me know as my brother ws told by the dealer that he had to buy $11 a quart oil from them only for warranty coverage.
 
Sorry that I can't help you with the specific law you're requesting, but has your brother tried showing the dealer the appropriate section of the owner's manual wherein it gives the requirements for lube oil? Legally, any oil that meets those requirements is acceptable.



Rusty
 
You're looking for the Magnusson-Moss Act.



The dealer is probably only partially incorrect. Some of the lubes are pretty hard to come by except at the dealer (oil for the NV4500 comes to mind. ) You do have to meet spec as published, but he can't require to to purchase it from him. In the event of a warranty claim, he CAN require receipts to show what you've put in.
 
jkalchik is right on the act. The Sherman Act? I don't know what that is but I do know he's the one that burned Atlanta down. I sure do wish he'd come back. There's a reason now. A lot left to do.



. . Preston. .
 
:eek: $11 a quart that stuff better be laced with gold chips... My response to the dealer would have been your F**** nuts LOL... . Not sure what kind of fast one the dealer is trying to pull but i have never heard of that before even with these newer diesels or gasser engines or transmission's... Someone enlighten me as old age is setting in or is it those darn 12hr nite shift i work... :-laf
 
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